Digital SAT Practice: Writing/Verb Choice Questions

1. The officer nodded, took the boy by the arm, and in a trice ___________ with him into the adjoining store.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. have disappeared
B. disappears
C. disappeared
D. disappear

2. ________ the white light burn on, Mr. Gryce, by a characteristic effort, shifted his attention to the walls, covered, as I have said, with tapestries and curios.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. Letting
B. Let
C. Had let
D. Have let

3. And sure enough, in another instant this strange being, losing all semblance to his former self, entered upon a series of pantomimic actions which to the two men who watched him seemed both to explain and illustrate the crime which _________________________ there.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. had just been enacted
B. have just been enacted
C. were just enacted
D. had just enacted

4. The butler’s lips opened and a string of strange gutturals poured forth, while with his one disengaged hand (for the other was held to his side by Styles) he _________ his ears and his lips, and violently shook his head.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. touches
B. was touching
C. touched
D. had touched

5. This absence of the usual means of eliciting knowledge from the surrounding people, adds to, rather than detracts from, the interest which Mr. Gryce  feels in the case, and a little before midnight the army of reporters, medical men, officials, and such others as had followed in the coroner’s wake, _______ out of the front door and leave him again, for a few hours at least, master of the situation.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. files
B. file
C. filing
D. filed

6. The hour was late, and only certain portions of the city showed any real activity. Into one of these thoroughfares they presently came, and before the darkened window of one of the lesser shops ________, while Jake pointed out the two stuffed frogs engaged with miniature swords in mortal combat at which he had been looking when the lady came up and spoke to him.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. paused,
B. pausing,
C. pause,
D. pauses,

7. The officer went out, and Mr. Gryce sat for a few moments communing with himself, during which he took out a little package from his pocket, and __________ out on his desk the five little spangles it contained, regarded them intently.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. emptied
B. empties
C. had emptied
D. emptying

8. Sweetwater, to whom the song of the sirens would have sounded less sweet, listened with delight and ______________ with a frank smile.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. respond
B. had responded
C. responds
D responded

9. This time he approached with considerable feebleness, passed slowly into the study, ­­­­­­­­­­­______________ to the table, and reached out his hands as if to lift something which he expected to find there.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. advances
B. advanced
C. have advanced
D. advance

10. But her ears, and attention, _______________toward two girls chatting on a bench near her as freely as if they were quite alone on the lawn.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. was turned
B. are turned
C. were turned
D. is turned

11. Was it that courage comes with despair? Or was he too absorbed in his own misery to note the shadow it cast about him? His brooding brow and vacant eye _______ of a mind withdrawn from present surroundings.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. speaks
B. speak
C. spoke
D. spoken

12. So I wrote to my brother, Felix Cadwalader, or, rather, Felix Adams, as he preferred to be called in later years for family reasons entirely disconnected with the matter of his sudden demise, and, ________ him I had become interested in a young girl of good family and some wealth, asked him to settle upon me a certain sum which would enable me to marry her with some feeling of self-respect.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. told
B. tells
C. telling
D. had told

13. Eva, to whom I had said little of this brother, certainly nothing which would lead her to anticipate ___________ either so handsome a man or one of such mental poise and imposing character, looked frightened and a trifle awe-struck.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. seeing
B. to see
C. having seen
D. saw

14. Your stay in Mr. Adams’s house was quite productive, ma’am. Did you prolong it after the departure of this old man?” “No, sir, I _____________my fill of the mysterious, and left immediately after him.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. had had
B. have had
C. was having
D. could have

15. Mr. Gryce, with something of the instinct and much of the deftness of a housewife, proceeded to pull up a couple of rugs from the parlor floor and ­­_________ them over these openings.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. strung
B. string
C. had strung
D. strings

16. Miss Butterworth drew a long breath, ________ Mr. Gryce with some curiosity, and then triumphantly exclaimed, “Can you read the meaning of all that? I think I can.”

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. eyes
B. had eyed
C. eying
D. eyed

17. Mr. Gryce, whose eye is travelling over the wall, reaches over her shoulder to one of the dozen pictures hanging at intervals from the bottom to the top of the staircase, and pulling it away from the wall, on which it hangs decidedly askew, _________ a round opening through which pours a ray of blue light which can only proceed from the vault of the adjoining study.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. revealed
B. revealing
C. reveals
D. has revealed

18. The study—that most remarkable of rooms—________ a secret which has not been imparted to you; a very peculiar one, madam, which was revealed to me in a rather startling manner.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?

A. did contain
B. contains
C. is containing
D. contain

19. Young Sweetwater, who was now all nerve, enthusiasm, and hope, ______________.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. bow
B. bowed
C. bowing
D. have bowed

20. The two gentlemen, on the contrary, with an air of total indifference to her proximity, continued their walk until they reached the end of the piazza, and then __________ and proceeded mechanically to retrace their steps.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of standard English?
A. turned
B. turning
C. turn
D. turns

  1. C. In the sentence, the officer does three things. He nods, takes the boys arm, and disappears. In the sentence the first two actions are in the past tense “nodded, took”. In order to maintain parallel structure, the third verb should also be in the past tense. This makes option C the best answer. Options B and D are in the present, and option A is the plural present perfect, not the singular simple past.
  2. A. In English we can use the present participle or gerund (word ending in ing) to indicate that something is currently happening at the point in time being discussed. In this case, Mr. Gryce is letting the light burn while in the past he shifted attention to the walls. The other answers do not appropriately choose a tense that allows the reader to understand this.
  3. A. Answer options C and D are incorrect because they say that the crime enacted something instead of the crime being enacted itself. Option B is incorrect because it uses the plural “have” to describe the singular “crime”. Answer option A is therefore the best choice because it uses the singular “had” and correctly explains that it is the crime that was enacted.
  4. C. In this sentence, the butler is doing three things. His lips open, he touches his ears and lips, and he shakes his head. All three of these actions must be in the same tense. This makes option C correct as it matches “touched” to “opened” and “shook”.
  5. A. Be careful in identifying the subject of your verb in such lengthy sentences. Who is it who is filing out the front door? It isn’t Mr. Gryce. Nor is it the reporters, medical men, officials etc. (the subject of your verb will never be in a prepositional phrase).  Rather, the subject of the verb is “army”. Army is a singular noun, so you much choose the singular “files”. In addition, the passage is in present tense, making option D incorrect.
  6. A.  Since the passage is in the past tense and “paused” is in the past tense, answer A is the only correct answer.
  7. D. While the passage is in the past tense, at that point in the past, Mr. Gryce is presently “emptying” the package out onto his desk. One way to be clued into this is to put the answers into the context of the last part of the passage “regarded them intently.” Which only makes sense when answer D is selected. If answer A is selected the sentence is awkward.
  8. D. Sweetwater is doing two things—match your answer to “listened” and the correct answer “responded” becomes obvious.
  9. B. The man did four things: approached, passed, advanced, and reached. Only answer option B correctly matches “advanced” with the others.
  10. C. Since the subject “ears” is plural, options A and D are incorrect as they have singular verbs “was” and “is”. Since the sentence is in the past tense, the verb “were” is the most appropriate answer.
  11. C. This passage is in the simple past, so our verb must be “spoke”. Options A and B are in the present, and option D is the past participle which would go with a helping verb to create the past perfect instead of building the simple past.
  12. C. Even though this passage is in the past tense, this particular sentence is put into the past with the words “had become”. What the author is saying is that at a point in the past, the author of the letter was currently “telling” his brother that he (the writer) had become interested. The only answer that fits this complicated idea is answer option C.
  13. A. Since Eva is anticipating something, that something will be happening in the future. This means that we must use the gerund form—that is—the verb with “ing” at the end. This makes option A the best answer and the other options incorrect.
  14. A. In the past, the lady had already had her fill of the mysterious. She “had had” it. While this seems intuitively wrong, it is the correct way to express that in the past someone already had something. Option B would be used if the subject were plural instead of a singular person.
  15. B. Mr. Gryce does two things the first is to “pull” and the second, therefore must be to “string” so that the tenses of the verbs match.
  16. D. Miss Butterworth “drew”, “eyed”, and “exclaimed”. In order for her three actions to be in parallel structure (all in the simple past), we must pick option D.
  17. C. Since this passage is describing Mr. Gryce’s actions in the present tense, the best option is option C, the third person present singular. Options A and D are forms of the past tense and option B is the gerund form.
  18. B. The subject of this verb is singular: the study. This make option be the only correct answer since it is the third person singular conjugation of the verb “contain”.
  19. B. The subject of the verb is “Young Sweetwater”. When you put the subject directly in front of the answers it becomes clear that only option B is the right verb. Answers A and D are both plural while the subject is singular. Option C is the gerund form which is not appropriate in this context.
  20. A. Make sure that your answer is parallel in form to the second verb “proceeded”. In this case, that would mean choosing answer option A: turned.  The other options are not parallel.


All passages have been adapted from The Circular Study by Anna Katharine Green. Read more of this mystery novel on project Gutenberg:

https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/18761/pg18761-images.html


Digital SAT Practice Questions–Command of Evidence: Quantitative

Here are 10 original questions to practice the new Digital SAT Quantitative Command of Evidence questions.

  1. Consumption of Sugar, Coffee, and Tea:

CountrySugar (lbs)Coffee (lbs)Tea (lbs)
Great Britain35.960.903.190
United States24.635.68—–
Holland14.867.030.800
France14.392.320.018
Norway11.046.920.060
Sweden9.800.800.060
Switzerland9.605.28—-
Germany9.424.030.035
Denmark9.003.400.400
Belgium7.188.590.018
Portugal6.330.690.040
Italy5.200.900.020
Austria4.931.300.012
Spain4.230.010.040
Russia2.400.0070.160

The entire consumption of sugar in Europe has averaged, during the last few years, 3,410,000 pounds, and for the whole world is it set down at nearly twice that amount. It is estimated that three fourths of the sugar is made from cane, and one fourth from beet. The consumption of coffee has doubled in most countries during the last twenty years.


A scientist wishes to use data from the table to try to back up the initial claim of the author as to European sugar consumption. Which of the following procedures should the scientist undertake in order to utilize the data?

A. Add up all the sugar from European countries and see if it is roughly 3,410,000 pounds.
B. Add up all the sugar from all countries and see if it is exactly 3,410,000 pounds
C. Add up all the coffee from the European countries and see if it is double 3,410,000 pounds
D. Add up all the coffee from the all the countries and see if it is exactly 3,410,000 pounds.

2. Annual report to Congress of the Commissioner of Patents, 1876:

Number of applications for patents in 187621,425
Number of patents issued, including reissues and designs15,595
Number of applications for extension of patents2
Number of patents extended3
Number of caveats filed during the year2,697
Number of patents expired during the year814
Number of patents allowed but not issued for want of final fee3,353
Number of applications for registering of trademarks1,081
Number of trademarks registered959
Number of applications for registering of labels650
Number of labels registered402

The number of applications for patents was a little less than during the previous year. The Commissioner suggests that Congress should appropriate $50,000 to promote the printing of the old patents; that additional examiners be employed, and more clerks, for the purpose of expiating the business of the office; that the price of the Official Gazette be reduced, also the fee for trademark registration; that the library fund be increased; that more space be provided for models, and the transaction of business.


The author is requesting additional funds to hire employees for the patent office. Which answer, if true, would support his claim that more examiners and clerks are needed?

A. Of the 15,595 patents issued, most were to citizens of the United States.
B. Of the roughly 21,425 applications, over half could not be reviewed in time for the annual report.
C. Three patent extensions were needed in 1876
D. The 3,353 patents not issued for lack of fee were mostly to non-Americans



3.

 Without ConductorWith Conductor
Moisture %78.2179.84
Sugar16.8618.41
Tartaric acid0.8000.791
Bitartrate of potash0.1800.186

Macagno, also believing that the passage of electricity from air through the vine to earth would stimulate growth, selected a certain number of vines, all of the same variety and all in the same condition of health and development. Sixteen vines were submitted to experiment and sixteen were left to natural influences. In the ends of the vines under treatment, pointed platinum wires were inserted, to which were attached copper wires, leading to the tops of tall poles near the vines; at the base of these same vines other platinum wires were inserted and connected by copper wires with the soil. At the close of the experiment, the wood, leaves, and fruit of both sets of vines were submitted to careful analysis with the above results.

Which answer would be the best summary statement to make based on the results in the chart as they relate to Mocagno’s hypothesis?

A. The plants without the conductor and the plants with the conductor had no measurable difference in bitartrate of potash.
B. The plants with the conductor had higher levels of moisture, sugar, and bitartrate of potash, which created growth and proves Macagno’s hypothesis correct.
C. Because the plants without a conductor had higher tartaric acid levels, they would have grown more than the plans with the conductor, proving Macagno’s hypothesis incorrect.
D. Because we do not have data on the size or height of the plants, we can not draw conclusions as to the effect of the conductor on plant growth. Macagno’s hypothesis remains untested.

4. The following table gives the absolute sensitiveness of several of the best known kinds of American and foreign photography plates, when developed with oxalate, in terms of pure silver chloride taken as a standard. As the numbers would be very large, however, if the chloride were taken as a unit, it was thought better to give them in even hundred thousands.

Sensitiveness of Plates:

PlatesDaylightGaslight
Carbutt transparency0.7—
Allen and Rowell1.3150
Richardson Standard1.310
Marchall and Blair2.7140
Blair Instantaneous3.0140
Carbutt Special4.020
Monroe4.025
Wratten and Wainwright4.010
Eastman special5.330
Richardson Instantaneous5.320
Walker Reid and Inglis11.0600
Edwards11.020
Monckhoven16.0120
Beebe16.020
Cramer16.0120

It will be noted that the plates most sensitive to gaslight are by no means necessarily the most sensitive to daylight; in some instances, in fact,                                                                . It should be said that the above figures cannot be considered final until each plate has been tested separately with its own developer, as this would undoubtedly have some influence on the final result.

Which answer option best completes the passage with information consistent with the data in the table?


A. there is no gaslight sensitivity whatsoever
B. the gaslight and daylight sensitivity seem to be nearly the same
C. the reverse seems to be true
D. The daylight sensitivity is far below the gaslight sensitivity

5. So much has been claimed for natural gas as regards the superiority of its heating properties as compared with coal, that some analyses of this gas, together with calculations showing the comparison between its heating power and that of coal, may be of interest. These calculations are, of course, theoretical in both cases, and it must not be imagined that the total amount of heat, either in a ton of coal or 1,000 cubic feet of natural gas, can ever be fully utilized. In making these calculations I employed as a basis what in my estimation was a gas of an average chemical composition, as I have found that gas from the same well caries continually in its compositions. Thus, samples of gas from the same well, but taken on different days, _______________________________________  and so with all the component gases.

Analysis of Natural Gas- given as percents

Date tested10/28/8410/29/8411/24/8412/4/8410/18/8410/25/84
Carbonic Acid0.8.60.400.3
Carbonic Oxide1.00.8.580.41.00.30
Oxygen1.10.8.780.82.11.2
Olefiant Gas0.70.80.980.60.80.6
Ethylic Hydride3.65.57.9212.305.24.8
March Gas72.1865.2560.7049.5857.8575.16
Hydrogen20.0226.1629.0335.929.6414.45
Nitrogen000023.412.89
Heat Units728,746698,170627,170745,813592,380745,591

Which answer option best completes the passage with information from the chart?


A. vary in olefiant gas from .98 to .6, Ethylic Hydride from 12.3 to 3.6, heat units from 745,813 to 592,380,
B. vary in nitrogen from 23 percent to zero percent, carbonic acid from two percent to zero percent, oxygen from four percent to 0.4 percent,
C. vary in nitrogen from 23 percent to zero percent, carbonic acid from two percent to zero percent, heat units from 745,813 to 592,380,
D. vary in nitrogen from 23.41 to 0, carbonic acid from .08 to .3, Oxygen from 1.1 to 1.2

6. The following table gives some particulars of the Great Lakes and the discharge from them:

LakeElevation above mean tideArea of Basin (square miles)Area of lake (square miles)RainfallEvaporationDischarge
Superior602.7890,50538.875187,38634,49580,870
Huron and Michigan581.28121,94150,400262,96466,754216,435
Erie572.8640,29810,00096,65413,870234,578
Ontario246.6131,5587,22075,69210,568272,095

The average variation in level of the lakes is from 18 inches to 24 inches during the year, and the range in evaporation from year to year is also very considerable; thus the evaporation per second on Huron and Michigan, as given in the table above, _____________________  but the figures for another year show nearly 89,000 feet per second, which would represent a difference of 6.5 inches in water level. As a discharge of 10,000 cubic feet a second into the new canal would lower the level of these two lakes by 2.87 inches in a year, it follows that the difference between a year of maximum and one of minimum evaporations is more than twice as great as would be required for the canal, and even under the most unfavorable conditions the volume taken from the whole chain of lakes would not lower them an inch.

Which answer option best completes the passage with relevant data from the table?


A. is nearly 67,000 feet,
B. is around 250,000 feet,
C. is nearly 14,000 feet,
D. is nearly 35,000 feet,

7. The portion of the flame which is supposed to be the hottest is about half an inch above the tip of the inner zone of the flame, and it is at this point that most vessels containing water to be heated are made to impinge on the flame; and it is this portion of the flame, also, which is utilized for raising various solids to a temperature at which they radiate heat.

In order to gain an insight into the amount of contamination which the air undergoes when a geyser or cooking stove is at work, I have determined the composition of the products of a combustion, and the unburned gases escaping when a vessel containing water at the ordinary temperatures is heated up to the boiling point by a gas flame, the vessel being placed, in the fist case, half an inch above the inner cone of the flame, and in the second, at the extreme outer tip of the flame.

Gases Escaping During Combustion:

 Luminous flame InnerLuminous flame Outer
Nitrogen77.5269.41
Water Vapor11.8019.24
Carbon Dioxide4.938.38
Carbon Monoxide2.452.58
March Gas0.950.39
Acetylene0.270
Hydrogen2.080
   
 100.00100.00


Based on the passage and the table, what inference could be made about the placement of the water vessel and the resulting effects on the air in the room the experiment was conducted?

A.  When water was heated in a vessel placed in the hottest part of the flame, less of every type of contaminant was released into the air, leading to better air quality than when the vessel was placed in a cooler part of the flame.
B. When water was heated in a vessel placed in the hottest part of the flame, more nitrogen, march gas, acetylene, and hydrogen were released into the air while less water vapor, carbon monoxide, and carbon dioxide were released. The resulting effect on air quality is unknown.
C. When water was heated in a vessel placed in the hottest part of the flame, less nitrogen, march gas acetylene, and hydrogen were released into the air while more water vapor, carbon monoxide, and carbon dioxide were released. The resulting effect on air quality is positive.
D. When water was heated in a vessel placed in the hottest part of the flame, more of every type of contaminant was released into the air, leading to poorer air quality than when the vessel was placed in a cooler part of the flame.



8. Eggs Laid and Gain in Weight in Hens over the course of three periods.

 NitrogenousCarbonaceous
Live Weight, July 26th23.5323.56
Live weight, November 2721.3122.00
Loss2.221.56
Number of Eggs laid79.0026.00
Weight of eggs laid (lb)8.252.92
Average weight of eggs (oz)1.671.80
Gain in weight, including eggs (lb)6.031.36

During the first week the carbonaceous fed hens laid three eggs while the others laid two. The two groups were, therefore, practically evenly divided at the start as to the condition of the laying stage. At the end of the first period the nitrogenous fed hens had laid forty-three eggs and the carbonaceous fed hens had laid twenty. During the next twenty-five days the former laid thirty and the latter six; ___________________________________     From this time on no eggs were received from either group. The decline in egg production was probably due in large part to the fact that the hens began to molt during the second period, and continued to do so during the rest of the experiment.

Which answer option best uses information from the table to complete the passage?


A. during the third period the former laid six and the latter not any.
B. during the third period the former laid 79 and the later laid 26.
C. during the third period the former laid non and the latter laid six.
D. during the third period it was no possible to tabulate the number of eggs laid.



9. Cost of living for a man in Great Britain and the United States, in shillings:

 Great BritianUnited States
Food744773.7
Clothing192278.4
Rent144272.1
Fuel60122.0
Sundries6090.0
Total:1200 Shillings
(60 pounds)		1536.2 Shillings (77 pounds, 16 shillings)

Having agreed that wages are probably 62 percent higher in Massachusetts than in Great Britain, it would be easy, if we could ascertain what proportion of a working man’s income is spent respectively in groceries, provisions, clothing etc., to determine what advantage an operative derives from the higher wages of the United States. Dr. Engle, the chief of the Prussian Bureau of Statistics, puts us in possession of this information, and, as the result of a laborious inquiry, has formulated a certain economic law which governs the relations between income and expenditure. We learn, consequently ___________________________ .

Which answer best uses information from the table and the passage to draw a conclusion about wage equity between the United States and Great Britain?

A. that a workman earning 1200 shillings per year in Great Britain would also have to pay more in food costs, thus further reducing his available funds, and making the advantage of working in the United States even stronger. 
B. that workers in the United States have to pay more for everything from food to Sundries, making their income lower than that of a man in a comparable job in Great Britain.
C. that a workman in Great Britain earns only 60 pounds per year while a comparable workman in the United States earns over 77 pounds, creating a wealth gap of 17 pounds, 16 shillings between English and American workers.
D. that a workman earning 60 pounds per annum in Great Britain would receive 99 pounds in the States, but living there would cost him 77 pounds, or 17 pounds more than here, giving him a net advantage of only 22 pounds.

10. The following table, which has been prepared by the French Ministry of Public Works, gives the railway mileage of the various countries of Europe and the United States up to the end of 1881, with the number of miles constructed in that year, and the population per mile:

CountryTotal MilesMiles Built in 1881Population per Mile
Germany21,3133312,154
Great Britain18,1571641,939
France17,1348952,170
Austria-Hungary11,8802623,200
Italy5,4501095,321
Spain4,8691763,492
Sweden and Norway4,6162731,408
Belgium2,561482,203
Switzerland1,557221,831
Holland1,425832,885
Denmark1,053251,919
Romania916565,860
Turkey866–2,891
Portugal75785,870
Greece6–28,000
Total107,3062,4553,168
United States104,8139,358502

It appears from this that the United States Mileage was only 2,493 less than the total of all Europe, and at the present time it exceeds it, as the former country has built about 6,000 miles this year, whereas Europe has not exceeded 1,500. The difference in the number of persons per mile in the two cases is also

Which answer, if true, would best complete the author’s thought, using data from the table?


A. generally minimal, with the difference between countries varying from 5,870 in Portugal to 1,405 in Sweden and Norway with two outliers: the United States and Greece.
B. very great: Greece has one mile of rail for every 28,000 people while Sweden and Norway have one mile of rail for every 1,408 people largely due to the density of their population.
C. very great, Europe taking six times as many persons to support a mile of railway as the States, and can only be accounted for by the fact that American railways are constructed much cheaper than the European ones.
D. marginal, with the average population per mile in Europe hovering around 4,750.




Answer Solutions

1.  A. The passage claims that Europe has, in the past few years, had a sugar consumption around 3,410,000 pounds. If a scientist wanted to support this, he or she could find the total European sugar consumption for the year in the table and see if it is close to the average. Of course, any given year might be an outlier, but given the limited data in the table, this is still the best option. Option B is incorrect because it includes non-European countries. Options C and D are correct because the scientist is trying to make a claim about sugar, not coffee.
2. B. In the passage, the commissioner requests additional funds in order to employ more examiners and clerks for the patent office “for the purpose of expiating the business of the office”. In other words, they need more people so that the office can move more quickly in processing the patent and other applications. If it were true that only half of the submitted patents had been able to be reviewed by the time the end of the year report came out, that would support the idea that more workers are needed, making option B correct. Option A is incorrect, as the citizenship of the applicants does not impact the need for more funds. Options C and D are incorrect for the same reason.
3. D. The hypothesis posited by Mscagno was that electricity would stimulate the growth of the plants. Because plant height, weight, or other indicators of growth were not measured, the data cannot be used to support Macagno’s hypothesis. This makes option D correct and the other answers incorrect. The presence of moisture, sugar, tartaric acid, and bitartrate of potash are not indicators of growth.
4. C. The first sentence points out that there seems to be no positive correlation between plate sensitivity to daylight and gaslight. The passage continues by saying that “in some instances, in fact”. This is leading into a contrasting statement from the first sentence, making option C the best answer. Answer option A is only correct for Carbutt transparencies, not for the plates in general. Answer B is incorrect as there is a clear and measurable difference between daylight and gaslight sensitivity for all the plates. Option D is incorrect as it does not contrast with the first sentence of the passage.
5. B. The correct answer must include the variances for different components of the gas. Heat units are not components of gas, but rather a measure of energy, and thus answers A, and C are incorrect. Answer option D incorrectly measures the highest and lowest measurements of the components, leaving only answer B as a correct option.
6. A. A careful reading of the graph shows that the evaporation on lakes Huron and Michigan is 66,754 which makes option A correct and the other options incorrect.
7. B. We learn in the first paragraph that the hottest part of the flame is about half an inch above the tip of the inner zone of the flame. This makes “luminous flame inner” our hotter option and “luminous flame outer” our cooler option. Based on this, we can see that the hotter option has higher outputs of nitrogen, march gas, acetylene, and hydrogen and lower outputs of water vapor, carbon monoxide, and carbon dioxide. However, we do not have evidence of the impact of these outputs on air quality. This makes option B the best answer. The other answer options are all incorrect as they misunderstand either which one is hotter, or they assume the impact on the air quality without evidence.
8. A. We learn in the table that the nitrogenous fed (former) hens laid a total of 79 eggs and the carbonaceous fed (later) hens laid a total of 26.  The passage tells us that in the first and second periods the nitrogenous fed hens laid 43 and 25 eggs and the carbonaceous fed hens laid 20 and 6. 79-43-25=6 therefore in the third period the nitrogenous fed hens laid six eggs. 26-20-6=0 therefore in the third period the carbonaceous fed hens laid 0. This is best stated in answer option A.
9. D. We see in the table that in Great Britain the cost of living is 1200 shillings, or 60 pounds. In the United States, the cost of living is 1536.2 shillings, or 77 pounds, 16 shillings. We learn in the passage that wages are higher in Massachusetts than in Great Britain. This makes answer D the most logical conclusion. A that pays 60 pounds in Great Britain would likely pay more in the United States, but some of that advantage would be eaten away by the higher cost of living.
10. C.  Note the word “also” before the blank. In the previous sentence, the author pointed out a large discrepancy in the 6000 miles built in the U.S. compared to the only 1500 built in Europe. We now need a similar comparison for that “also” to make sense. This would mean that answers A and D are incorrect as they do not show a similarly large difference. Answer B is incorrect as it compares one European country to another instead of continuing the author’s comparison of all of Europe to the United States.





Sources:

All information and data are taken from or adapted from various editions of Scientific American and the supplements thereof. You can improve your reading skills by reading more of similar texts. Specific links for the information from each question can be found below.

1. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/19180/pg19180-images.html
2. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/19406/pg19406-images.html
3. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/15193/pg15193-images.html
4. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/13401/pg13401-images.html
5. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/13401/pg13401-images.html
6. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/13443/pg13443-images.html
7  https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/13443/pg13443-images.html
8. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/13443/pg13443-images.html
9. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/11735/pg11735-images.html
10. https://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/8504/pg8504-images.html

Yale will again require standardized test scores

Yale just announced that they will again require test scores as part of the college application. In addition to SAT or ACT scores, students can now submit Advanced Placement or International Baccalaureate results. Yale made this shift because it will improve their ability to predict which students are most likely to succeed at Yale:

“Yale’s research from before and after the pandemic has consistently demonstrated that, among all application components, test scores are the single greatest predictor of a student’s future Yale grades. This is true even after controlling for family income and other demographic variables, and it is true for subject-based exams such as AP and IB, in addition to the ACT and SAT.”

In addition, Yale found that including standardized test scores would serve to increase the diversity of its class:

“Our researchers and readers found that when admissions officers reviewed applications with no scores, they placed greater weight on other parts of the application. But this shift frequently worked to the disadvantage of applicants from lower socio-economic backgrounds.” Source: https://admissions.yale.edu/test-flexible

Students looking to apply to highly selective schools would be well-served by showing their readiness for college level work by doing their best on the SAT or ACT.

Is the Digital SAT easier than the old paper SAT?

Many students and parents who were familiar with the old paper-based SAT are wondering whether the new Digital SAT will be easier.  The Digital SAT is designed to maintain the same level of rigor and predictive value for colleges as the paper SAT—otherwise, it wouldn’t be a useful tool to assess freshman-year readiness.  The College Board has done extensive research to ensure that Digital SAT scores align with paper SAT scores.  That being said, students I have tutored have generally found the new Digital SAT to be much less intimidating and more approachable than the paper SAT.  Here are ten reasons why most students will find the Digital SAT easier than the paper SAT. 

1.  Test fatigue is much less of an issue.  While the paper SAT was over three hours long, the Digital SAT is only a little over two hours.  This is possible because of the section-adaptive format of the Digital SAT:  students start with modules of average difficulty and then progress to either more or less challenging modules based on their first module performance.  Most students find that sustaining their attention for a little over two hours is quite manageable, making the Digital SAT less overwhelming than the paper SAT. 

2.  Less time wasted on double-checking.  On the paper SAT, many students found it difficult to avoid looking back at their previous answers since they could easily be seen.  Also, they had concerns about their bubbling in of the paper answer sheets. On the Digital SAT, students will only view one question at a time, making it much easier to compartmentalize their focus on one task.  Also, students click on the answer instead of physically bubbling, and they can easily see that the answer choice they selected is recorded by the computer. 

3.  Calculators are available throughout the math section.  The paper SAT had a no-calculator section; even though all the problems on this section could have been done without a calculator, many students found it more challenging than the calculator math section.  On the Digital SAT, students can bring a calculator of their own to use for the math sections.  Moreover, they have access to the powerful Desmos™ calculator that is built into the testing interface.  The functionality of the Desmos™ calculator allows students to easily graph parabolas, systems of equations, and even tables. 

4.  Fewer questions on obscure grammar concepts.  The Digital SAT focuses on grammar fundamentals:  subject-verb agreement, verb tense, punctuation, modifier placement, and transitions.  Unlike the old SAT, which also tested idioms, diction, and wordiness, students will find that they can focus their grammar study on certain concepts.  For example, understanding the rules of semicolon and colon usage can go a long way on the Digital SAT. 

5. The question stems are more predictable.  Unlike the paper SAT, which had a wide variety of question wording, the questions on the Digital SAT are quite consistent.  Students will find certain question stems repeated over and over: 

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?  

Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?

Which choice most logically completes the text? 

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?  Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?  

Having these consistent question stems allows students to get in a better testing rhythm and devote more time to thinking about their answers instead of trying to understand what they are asked to do. 

6.  The reading and writing selections are concise.  The old paper SAT had just a few reading and writing passages, each of which was several hundred words.  If a student found a topic uninteresting on these sorts of passages, it was easy for them to lose focus.  On the Digital SAT, the reading and writing passages are no longer than 150 words and are accompanied by a single question.  While a shorter text doesn’t necessarily mean an easier text, it does mean that students will often find them less daunting than the longer old SAT passages. 

7.  Proctor errors are less of a concern.  I have had some past tutoring students experience proctor errors during their testing—in particular, the proctor called “time” too early or too late.  Since the timing on the Digital SAT is done within the testing application, students need not worry about time being called early.  If they hide the countdown clock, it will automatically reappear when 5 minutes remain.  That way, students can be sure they answer every question before they run out of time. 

8. Students can use their own tablet or computer.  Familiarity brings comfort—students can practice on the same tablet or computer they want to use on test day.  Students can take control of their testing process by ensuring their computer is fully charged and in good working order.  There should be a minimal disconnect between practice tests and real tests when the device is the same for each. 

9.  The questions are less wordy.  Both the reading/writing and the math questions on the Digital SAT are generally shorter than those found on the paper SAT.  If students take their time carefully reading the questions, they are unlikely to make careless reading errors. 

10.  The Digital SAT is almost exactly like the Digital PSAT.  While there are slight differences in the content tested on the SAT and PSAT, the two tests have the same format and time restrictions.  Students who took the PSAT in the fall will feel comfortable knowing that they have already seen the computer interface and question types they will see on the Digital SAT. 

All told, students should look at the new Digital SAT not as something to be feared, but as an outstanding opportunity to demonstrate their academic skills to colleges. 

Digital SAT Writing Transitions Practice Questions

1. The following is an excerpt from The Dorrington Deed-box by Arthur Morrison:


As for Dorrington, he had his hundred pounds reward. But the bill for £10,000 he never presented. Why, I do not altogether know, unless he found that Mr. Mallows’s financial position, as he had hinted, was not altogether so good as was supposed.  __________ it was found among the notes and telegrams in this case in the Dorrington deed-box.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A. In other words,
B. At any rate,
C. Whatever,
D. On the other hand,

2. The following is an excerpt from Sanders of the River, By Edgar Wallace:


The Hon. George Tackle had the good fortune to be the son of his father; otherwise, I am free to confess he had no claim to distinction.  __________ his father, being the proprietor of the Courier and Echo (with which are incorporated I don’t know how many dead and gone stars of the Fleet Street firmament), George had a “pull” which no amount of competitive merit could hope to contend with.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A. But
B. While
C. So
D. Thus

3. The following is an excerpt from The Pathless Trail by Arthur O. Friel:


Sleep enveloped the huts. Snores and gurgles rose and fell. Tim himself, for the sake of effect, snored heartily at intervals, __________ his eyes never closed. Through his mosquito bar he could see only vaguely, but he knew any man walking from the crew’s quarters must cast a very visible shadow across that net, and to him the shadow would be as good a warning as a clear view of the substance. But the hours crept on, and no shadow came.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A. and
B. though
C. since
D. for

4. The Following is an excerpt from Bones in London, By Edgar Wallace:


The Tibbetts-Jelf Lamp was something new in motor lamps. It was a lamp which had all the advantages of the old lamp, plus properties which no lamp had ever had before, and it had none of the disadvantages of any lamp previously introduced, and, __________ had no disadvantages whatsoever. So Jelf told Bones with great earnestness.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A. however,
B. finally,
C. in fact,
D. therefore,

5. The following is an excerpt from The Keepers of The King’s Peace by Edgar Wallace:


The Wiggle, moreover, possessed many attributes which are denied to other small steamers. She had, __________  a Maxim gun on her tiny forecastle. She had a siren of unusual power and diabolical tone, she was also fitted with a big motor-horn, both of which appendages were Bones’s gift to his flagship.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?


A. on the other hand,
B. however,
C. completely,
D. for example

6. The following is an excerpt from Kidnapped by Robert Lois Stevenson:

I was abashed how to find expression for my thanks; but she was no less abashed at the thought of hearing them; begged us to lose no time and to hold our peace, saying (very properly) that the heart of our matter was in haste and silence; __________ what with one thing and another, she had set us on the Lothian shore not far from Carriden, had shaken hands with us, and was out again at sea and rowing for Limekilns, before there was one word said either of her service or our gratitude.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?


A. therefore,
B. because,
C. but,
D. and,

7. The following is an excerpt from Caves of Terror by Talbot Mundy


The tiny portions that melted and liquefied became full of motion, __________ the motion was never in one place for more than about a minute at a time; and wherever the motion had been the lump lost bulk, so that gradually the whole piece shrank and shrank.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A. while
B. although
C. so
D. because

8. The following is an excerpt from The Prisoner of Zenda by Anthony Hope:

After that we called on Bertram Bertrand, a versifier of some repute and Paris correspondent to The Critic. He had a very comfortable suite of rooms, and we found some pleasant fellows smoking and talking. It struck me, __________ that Bertram himself was absent and in low spirits, and when everybody except ourselves had gone, I rallied him on his moping preoccupation.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A. however,
B. on one hand,
C. therefore,
D. nevertheless,

9. The following is an excerpt from the introduction to She, by H. Rider Haggard:

That same evening my visit came to an end, and this was the last I saw or heard of “Charon” and “the Greek god” for many a long day. __________ I have never seen either of them from that hour to this, and do not think it probable that I shall. But a month ago I received a letter and two packets, one of manuscript, and on opening the first found that it was signed by “Horace Holly,” a name that at the moment was not familiar to me.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A. While,
B. Therefore,
C. Indeed,
D. Nevertheless,

10. The following is an excerpt from The Lion of Petra by Talbot Mundy:

The beginning as concerns me was when I moved into quarters in Grim’s mess in Jerusalem. As a civilian and a foreigner I could not have done that, __________ if it had been a real mess; but Grim, who gets fun out of side-stepping all regulations, had established a sort of semi-military boarding-house for junior officers who were tired of tents, and he was too high up in the Intelligence Department for anybody less than the administrator to interfere with him openly.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

A. but,
B. in addition,
C. while,
D. of course,

Solutions

1. B.  The information before the blank is saying that the author doesn’t exactly know why Dorrington never cashed the 10,000-pound check. The sentence with the blank is saying that the check was found in his possession. The author is not repeating previous information, so answer A is incorrect. Answer C makes no logical sense. Answer D is incorrect because the author is not contrasting the two sentences. Instead, the author is offering more information about the check, making option B the best answer.

2. A. The general meaning of this passage is that George Tackle had no reason to be notable, except that his father was notable. This makes option A the best answer since we are contrasting the lack of importance of the son with the “pull” he gets from his father. Option B is incorrect as it makes the second sentence a fragment. Options C and D are incorrect as the author is not showing cause and effect. 

3. B. Here, the author is setting up a contrast. We learn that Tim is making snoring noises, but he is still watching through the mosquito netting for a shadow. Therefore, he isn’t actually asleep. The only answer option that shows the contrast between the snoring noises and his being awake is option B.

4. C. Notice the word “and” before the blank. This eliminates option A. Option B is incorrect as we are not placing things in order. Option D is incorrect as the author is not concluding. The author is offering additional information, making option C the best answer.

5. D. In this passage, the second sentence is showing an example of an attribute The Wiggle had which other small steamers did not have. This makes option D the only appropriate answer.

6. D. The author is offering more information here. The woman has refused thanks and set them on the shore. This makes option D the best answer. The author is not showing cause and effect, making A and B incorrect and is not showing contrast, making option C incorrect.

7. B. The sentence shows that the portions are full of motion. The author wants to contrast this with the motion never being regular or in one place. This contrast is best shown in answer B. Answer A leaves the sentence a fragment. Options C and D do not show contrast.

8. A. The context clue here is that they found “pleasant fellows” but Bertram was “in low spirits” these are two contrasting emotions, making “however” the best answer. Option B would need to be placed with the first item of contrast, not the second. Option C shows cause and effect, not contrast. Option D does not fit into the context of the sentence.

9. C. In this sentence, the author is adding more information to emphasize the information in the first sentence that “this was the last I saw or heard of [them] for many a long day”. This makes option C the best answer as it shows that what is coming next is additional information. Option A does not fit into the sentence structure of the second sentence. Option B shows cause and effect. Option D shows contrast.

10. D. The first sentence sets up that he could not do what he did. The second sentence explains why he could do that after all (by breaking rules). The keeping of the rules is to be assumed, thus “of course” is the best answer. The breaking of rules is not to be assumed. Options A, B, and C do not fit into the structure of the sentence.

Digital SAT Text Structure and Purpose Reading Practice Questions

The text from these questions is adapted from the book “How to Know the Wildflowers,” by Frances Theodora Parsons.

1. Pliny tells us that the anemone of the classics was so entitled because it opened at the wind’s bidding. The Greek tradition claims that it sprang from the passionate tears shed by Venus over the body of the slain Adonis. At one time it was believed that the wind which had passed over a field of anemones was poisoned and that disease followed in its wake. Perhaps because of this superstition, the flower was adopted as the emblem of sickness by the Persians. Surely our delicate blossom is far removed from any suggestion of disease or unwholesomeness, seeming instead to hold the very essence of spring and purity in its quivering cup.

What choice best states the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A. It explains how a plant caused illness historically.
B. It clarifies what Pliny believes about the use of the plant.
C. It presents a hypothesis as to the origin of a historic symbol.
D. It argues against a commonly held belief.

2. Ginseng is well known by name but is yearly becoming more scarce. The aromatic root is so greatly valued in China for its supposed power of combating fatigue and old age that it can only be gathered by order of the emperor. The forked specimens are believed to be the most powerful, and their fancied likeness to the human form has obtained for the plant the Chinese title of Jinchen (from which ginseng is a corruption), and the Indian one of Garntoguen, both of which, strangely enough, are said to signify like a man.


What choice best describes the function of the underlined information in text as a whole?
A. It explains the origin of an English word.
B. It clarifies a common mispronunciation of a Chinese word.
C. It gives the reader irrelevant information.
D. It allows the reader to visualize the plant.

3. He who seeks the cool shade of the evergreens on a hot July day is likely to discover the nodding wax-like flowers of this little plant. They are delicate and pretty, with a background of shining leaves. These leaves when young have a pleasant aromatic flavor similar to that of the sweet birch; they are sometimes used as a substitute for tea. The bright red berries are also edible and savory and are much appreciated by the hungry birds and deer during the winter. If not thus consumed, they remain upon the plant until the following spring when they either drop or rot upon the stem, thus allowing the seeds to escape.


What choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A. It concludes the text with a detail about the safety of berry consumption.
B. It helps the reader understand how evergreens spread.
C. It clarifies the nutritional value of berries to the birds and deer.
D. It builds on the claim of the previous sentence.

4. The common knotweed, P. aviculare, which grows in such abundance in country dooryards and waste places, has slender, often prostrate, stems, and small greenish flowers, which are clustered in the axils of the leaves or spike at the termination of the stems. This is perhaps the “hindering knotgrass” to which Shakespeare refers in the “Midsummer Night’s Dream,” so terming it, not on account of its knotted trailing stems, but because of the belief that it would hinder the growth of a child.

What choice best describes the function of the underlined selection in the text as a whole?
A. It introduces a term from literature that will later be clarified.
B. It provides direct evidence for a previous claim.
C. It gives the exact words of a noted botanist.
D. It explains the use of a previously explained.

5. Despite the difference in the spelling of the names, it has been suggested [about the pokeweed] that the plant was called after President Polk. This is most improbable, as it was common throughout the country long before his birth, and its twigs are said to have been plucked and worn by his followers during his campaign for the Presidency.

What choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A. It provides evidence as to the origin of the name Pokeweed.
B. It explains where a term originated.
C. It presents chronological information to assuage the reader’s doubts.
D. It refutes a claim as to the origin of a term.

6. This [Queen Anne’s Lace] is believed to be the stock from which the garden carrot was raised. The vegetable was well known to the ancients, and we learn from Pliny that the finest specimens were brought to Rome from Candia. When it was first introduced into Great Britain is not known, although the supposition is that it was brought over by the Dutch during the reign of Elizabeth. In the writings of Parkinson, we read that the ladies wore carrot leaves in their hair in place of feathers. One can picture the dejected appearance of a ball-room belle at the close of entertainment.


What choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A. It presents literary evidence of a novel use for carrots.
B. It explains the depth and breadth of a tradition.
C. It helps the reader visualize Queen Elizabeth.
D. It gives evidence for the previous thought.

7. Some October day, as we pick our way through the salt marches which lie back of the beach, we may spy in the distance a thicket which looks as though composed of such white-flowered shrubs as belongs to June. Hastening to the spot we discover that the silky-tufted seeds of the female groundsel tree are responsible for our surprise. The shrub is much more noticeable and effective at this season than when—a few weeks previous—it was covered with its small white or yellowish flower-heads.

What choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
A. It sets the scene for a shocking discovery later in the text.
B. It describes an interesting discovery that is later explained in the text.
C. It sets the scene for an unusual activity.
D. It helps the reader visualize a normal setting.

8. The yellow lady’s slipper usually blossoms in May or June, a few days later than its pink sister, C. acaule. Regarding its favorite haunts, Mr. Baldwin says: “Its preference is for maples, beeches, and particularly butternuts, and for sloping of hilly ground, and I always look with glad suspicion at a knoll covered with ferns, cohoshes, and trilliums, expecting to see a clump of this plant among them. Its sentinel-like habit of choosing ‘slightly places’ leads it to venture well up on mountain sides.”


What choice best describes the function of the underlined phrase in the text as a whole?
A. It explains why the author does not believe Mr. Baldwin.
B. It gives a reason why Mr. Baldwin is suspicious of the yellow lady’s slipper.
C. It explains where Mr. Baldwin expects to find yellow lady’s slipper.
D. It explains what plants Mr. Baldwin expects to find on knolls.

9. If Emerson’s definition of a weed, as a plant whose virtues have not yet been discovered, be correct, we can hardly place the dandelion in that category, for its young sprouts have been valued as a pot-herb, its fresh leaves enjoyed as a salad, and its dried roots used as a substitute for coffee in various countries and ages. The feathery-tufted seeds which form the downy balls beloved as “clocks” by country children, are delicately and beautifully adapted to dissemination by the wind. The common name is a corruption of the French dent de lion.


What choice best describes the function of the quotation marks around the underlined word in the overall structure of the text?
A. They place emphases on the word.
B. They show that the word is a direct quote from Emerson.
C. They show that, while they are treated like clocks, dandelions are not actual clocks.
D. They show that the word inside is not truly part of the sentence.

10. “Too well known as a pernicious weed which is difficult to extirpate,” is the scornful notice which the botany gives to Common St. John’s-wort whose bright yellow flowers are noticeable in waste fields and along roadsides nearly all summer. Its rank, rapid growth proves very exhausting to the soil, and every New England farmer wishes it had remained where it rightfully belongs—on the other side of the water.


What choice best describes the function of the underlined phrase in the overall structure of the text?
A. It explains the origin of St. John’s-wort.
B. It explains the origin of the farmers.
C. It clarifies the location of the St. John’s-wort.
D. It clarifies the location of the farmers.

Answer Explanations

1. C. In the passage, we learn that a story of wind passing over a field of anemones causing the wind to be poisoned and lead to disease. The next sentence uses the word “perhaps” to speculate that this may have been where an ancient symbol of disease originated. This makes (C) the best answer option. It is not (A) since this is a story, not a historical fact. It is not (B) as this is not something Pliny believed, but rather something modern historians hypothesize. It is not (D) since it does not argue against this belief.

2. A. We learn in the first sentence of the text that the text is discussing the plant Ginseng. The parenthetical information (the information between the parenthesis) clarifies that from this name comes “a corruption” of the Chinese title of the plant: Jinchen. This makes option (A) the best answer. Answer (B) is incorrect since Ginseng is an English word with a Chinese origin, not a mispronunciation of a Chinese word. Answer (C) is incorrect since the information is not irrelevant to the discussion. Answer (D) is incorrect as it does not give any idea of Ginseng’s visual appearance.

3. B. In the text, we learn that evergreens have bright berries that are often eaten by birds or deer. The underlined sentence then concludes that if they are not eaten, they fall or rot, thus spreading the seeds. With the spread of seeds, the evergreens also spread. This makes option (B) the best answer. Option (A) is incorrect as the underlined portion does not give any details about the safety of consuming berries. Option (C) is incorrect as it does not explain the nutritional value of eating the berries. Option (D) is incorrect as the previous sentence does not make a claim about uneaten berries.

4. A. The term “hindering knotgrass” is an unknown term when first introduced. The rest of the sentence explains that this was a term used by Shakespeare and that the author believes that Shakespeare may have been referring to the plant knotweed and why. This makes answer (A) the best option. (B) is incorrect as “hindering knotgrass” is not evidence of anything. (C) is incorrect as Shakespeare is not a noted botanist. (D) is incorrect as the term is not previously explained term.

5. D. The second sentence explains why it isn’t possible that pokeweed was named after President Polk. This makes sentence (D) the best option—the term “pokeweed” didn’t come from President Polk. (A) and (B) are the exact opposite of what the sentence is doing. (C) is incorrect as it does not assuage doubts.

6. D. In the previous sentence the author states that it is thought that the carrot came to England during the reign of Elizabeth. The next sentence gives evidence for this by explaining that ladies were wearing carrot leaves in their hair, meaning the carrots must have been brought over. Option (A) is incorrect as it is historical evidence, not literary evidence. Option (B) is incorrect as there is no evidence that the wearing of carrot leaves is a tradition, rather it seems to have been a fad. Option (C) is incorrect as the sentence does not describe how Queen Elizabeth looked, but rather an accessory that she might have worn.

7. B. The sentence in question notes that “we” are out walking in October, yet see plants in the distance that look like they have June flowers on them. This is an interesting discovery. The rest of the text goes on to explain the plant that has these curious late-season flowers. This makes (B) the best option. (A) is incorrect as we can’t describe this as a shocking discovery. Option (C) is incorrect as the plant is unusual, not the activity. (D) is incorrect as the sentence helps the reader visualize an unusual setting (with flowers in October) not a normal setting.

8. C. The underlined sentence explains that the speaker, Mr. Balwin, always looks with “glad suspicion” at certain areas, “expecting to see a clump of this plant” (C. Acaule). This means he expects to find C. Acaule among the other plants mentioned, making option (C) the best answer. Answer (A) is incorrect as these are Mr. Baldwin’s words, not suspicion on the part of the author. Option (B) is incorrect as Mr. Baldwin is not suspicious of a plant, but rather looks “suspiciously” at where the plant grows. Option (D) is incorrect as he doesn’t expect knolls in general to have certain plants, but when they have fens, cohoshes, and trilliums, he expects to find yellow lady’s slipper as well.

9. C. In this instance the quotation marks are being used as a person might use what we call “air quotes” to show that the speaker does not mean the literal use of the word. (C) is the best option as the author does not mean to say that the dandelions are being used as literal clocks. Option (A) is incorrect as the quotes are used to show non-standard use of the word, not to place emphasis. Option (B) is incorrect as the word is not a direct quote. Option (C) is incorrect as the word “clocks” is indeed part of the sentence.

10. A. The New England farmer wishes that the plant had remained “on the other side of the water”. In this case, there is only one body of water that all New England farmers could refer to in such a vague way—the Atlantic Ocean. Therefore, St. Joh’s Wort must have origins somewhere on the other side of the ocean. This makes option (A) the best answer. Option (B) is incorrect as it is the origin of the plant, not the farmers, to which is being referred. Option (C) is incorrect as St. John’s wort has spread, and so its original location is no longer its only location. It is not option (D) as the farmers are in New England.

Using Your PSAT Scores

The first Digital PSAT was administered to students throughout the United States in October of 2023. In past years, most students did not receive their results until December. This year, PSAT results will be available much earlier–some PSAT test scores will come out on November 6th, and some will come out on November 16th. How can you make the best use of your PSAT results?

See if you may qualify for National Merit Scholarship Recognition. Look at your National Merit Selection Index, which ranges between 48-228 and is calculated by doubling your Reading/Writing score and adding this to your Math score. Depending on the state or territory in which you live, the selection index is likely to be anywhere between 207 and 223. For example, New Mexico and North Dakota have lower selection indices, while New Jersey and Massachusetts have higher selection indices.

Use the BigFuture application to connect with colleges and scholarship opportunities. Go to https://satsuite.collegeboard.org/bigfuture-school-mobile-app to download the app. One of the biggest reasons for the PSAT is so that colleges can use the results to connect with students who may be a good fit for their student body. Be prepared to get plenty of emails from colleges who are interested in having you apply.

Do targeted review using Khan Academy. Be sure your College Board account is connected to Khan Academy. Here is an article on how to do this. Once your account is connected, Khan Academy can provide review materials for you based on the types of questions you missed on the PSAT.

Prepare for the Digital SAT that starts in March of 2024. The Digital PSAT gave you an excellent preview of the Digital SAT, since both tests have the same format, timing, and interface. Use your PSAT results to help you determine where you most need to focus your preparation leading up to the actual SAT. If you need help with your preparation, our highly trained Digital SAT tutors are ready to assist.

Educator Question Bank for the Digital SAT

The College Board has made a comprehensive Digital SAT Question bank available on their website:

https://satsuitequestionbank.collegeboard.org/digital/search

You can select certain question types, like Rhetorical Synthesis or Transitions, and create a PDF document that features those questions. It looks like many of the questions are repeats from the Bluebook SAT tests and the Khan Academy questions, so be prepared to have some overlap between the questions in this database and the questions in those other resources. Even so, this will be a valuable tool for students trying to prepare for the Digital SAT and Digital PSAT.

PSAT, ACT, and SAT Planning for High School Juniors

High school juniors in the United States have a very interesting year of testing options ahead of them. There are a total of four major tests that students will have the opportunity to take: the Digital PSAT, the Paper SAT, the ACT, and the Digital SAT. Who should focus on which of these different types of tests?

Digital PSAT: Administered in the month of October through a student’s high school. Students who are trying to earn National Merit recognition should prepare for this exam. National Merit recognition generally applies to students who score in the 95th percentile or above, and National Merit Scholarships usually go to students who score above the 99th percentile. For students who do not think that a National Merit award is in reach, taking the Digital PSAT is still an excellent way to try the adaptive, digital format they will find on the Digital SAT. Scores for the Digital PSAT will be back in November, so students will have plenty of time to review their PSAT results to prepare for the Digital SAT in the spring.

Paper SAT: Administered in August, October, November, and December of 2023. After these administrations, the current paper SAT will be retired and replaced with a Digital SAT. For students who want to take advantage of the expansive body of existing practice tests and review books, taking the paper SAT before it goes away is a good idea. Results from the paper SAT will still be fully utilized by colleges, so students would have nothing to lose by giving the paper SAT a try before they no longer have the opportunity to do so.

ACT: Administered throughout 2023-2024. In general, students who are faster test takers like the ACT. This is a good test to take if you have taken through Algebra 2 and a bit of pre-calculus. The ACT covers more math material than the Digital SAT: logarithms, matrices, hyperbolas/ellipses, and combinations/permutations. It also has a broader array of grammar concepts than does the Digital SAT: wordiness, idioms, diction, and sentence placement. Fortunately, students who want to take the ACT can use many excellent books and practice tests to prepare for this well-established test.

Digital SAT: Administered in the United States beginning in March, 2024 and continuing thereafter. The Digital SAT will be offered on national test dates, and many schools will offer it during the school day given the relatively short amount of time that taking the Digital SAT requires. Students will have their Digital PSAT results back in November of 2023 so they can evaluate whether the Digital SAT is a good fit for them. There is a great deal of overlap in the content between the ACT and Digital SAT, so if students wish to switch from one test to the other, it should be fairly seamless.

Please contact us if we can advise you as to the best testing plan for this upcoming school year.